A "juridical void" is denounced in some countries. Is such a void admissible?
Where there exists a law forbidding abortion, some judges, sometimes under pressure, hesitate to apply it. There is then a judicial void, for the law is not applied. This is not a juridical void, since the law exists.
This judicial void entails two consequences. On the one hand, it deprives the unborn infant of legal protection to which it has a right. On the other hand, it fails to protect women faced with the customary impunity of man and all those who have an interest in inciting them to abort.
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